If two identical s/h cars were advertised and one of those was a "Vat qualifying" car, would one expect this to be more expensive than its equivalent non qualifying counterpart as a much larger percentage of the price will go to HMRC and not the dealer?
If this was correct, then a good rule of thumb for the private 'non vat registered' person would be to avoid them as they are a more expensive option ?
I understand basically how the scheme works but cannot make my mind up on this matter. The reason I ask is that I want to replace my car and due to being disabled I can buy a new car with vat @ 0% and I'm pretty certain I can do the same with a 'vat qualifying' s/h model.
Obviously I want value for money, ie least depreciation say over 2yrs of ownership. I am planning on spending £40k ish on a mid model Merc E class. I have 3 options :-
1. Buy a new car, get the 14.89% (or whatever it is) off the purchase price. Sell in 2 yrs without having to charge vat
2. Buy a s/h 6 month old demo car, save say 3k ish, and then sell 2yrs later without adding vat
3. Buy a s/h 6 month old car that is non qualifying and sell 2yrs later.
Choices 1 &2 look best, probably 2, as someone else would of suffered some of the depreciation. However when I sell the car it will be 6 months older, will this partially counteract the £3k ish saving do you think?
If the s/h vat qualifying cars are more expensive in the first place, then option 3 could be equally as attractive.
What do you all think ?
Edited by JohnDeere on 08/11/2010 at 22:34
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