Lease companies often ask for an annual mileage and base their monthly fees on that charge.

Exceed the mileage and pay an excess fee - e.g. 10ppm.

There seems to be no equivalent clause for lower than anticipated mileage, which I guess is going to be the case for a lot of lease users at the moment.

Does this count as an unfair term in consumer law - i.e. one charge for them and no equivalent allowance for the customer? Would it be worth taking to court?

Thinking in terms of money, 10,000 miles could be worth £1,000 to a consumer.