My son paid £6k for a car last week, a 2010 golf with 77k miles. He bought it from a motor dealer in London.
His wife drove it down to my family in Wales, and on the 2nd day the car wouldn't engage D or R (auto-box)
He contacted the dealer, relaying the issue from his wife.
Unfortunately the issue has only worsened, and he decided, rightly in my view, that he was rejecting the car under the consumer rights act 2015 as it was less than 30 days old, and informed the dealer of this via email and phone-call.
I am driving the car back to the dealer in London on Saturday morning - exactly 7 days since the purchase.
Since looking at the paperwork with the car, please see link
https://drive.google.com/open?id=19FvkpDbBqEgJe39jH6HFTnSi_Ddvb2XF
It seems the previous owner also had a the same fault.
My question is, does this piece of paper go in our favour as proof the fault already existed, or against us as he took the car with that paper in the service book, therefore accepting the fault.
Basically - Do I wave that under the dealer's nose, or hide it?
Thanks in advance.
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